Can ALL Be Concluded Under Sin When Trespasses Are Not Imputed?

Published on 21 February 2026 at 21:43

February 3, 2020

Listener: Hey Trey. I don’t know if you remember me. Years back you helped me  understand the difference between the bride of Christ and the body of Christ. That was the conversation that lead me to rightly dividing the Word. I’m still thankful I found you and always will be. I was wondering if we could talk through a couple scriptures that I’m trying to figure out. 

2 Corinthians 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world  unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation. 

Galatians 3:22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe. 

We don’t have to be saved to not have our sins imputed to us. Jesus did that with his sacrifice. It’s the all under sin part in Galatians and the fact that both is “hath” that is tripping me up. Maybe I don’t understand the timing of both or maybe my definitions are wrong. Any light you can shed would be great appreciated. Thank you.

TTR: When reading Galatians 3, we must understand that this is speaking of ALL (both Jew and Gentile) as being concluded under sin, so that the Gospel can then be offered to ALL (and not Israel only.)

Before Paul – the Gospel was to ISRAEL, not us. Galatians 3:22 parallels perfectly with Romans 3:9, and leads you directly to 2 Corinthians 5:14 (part of the explanation of God’s reconciliation.)

Because of Israel’s sin of rejecting their Messiah – ALL (Both Jew and Gentile) WERE (HATH BEEN) concluded DEAD. (1 Corinthians 15:22) -Clean Slate. Dead men don’t sin. (Romans 6:7)

So EVERYONE (including Israel) was concluded DEAD in unbelief, after the stoning of Stephen. -which is why our own righteousness is as filthy rags to God – dead flesh creates dead works. However, when we believe the gospel, 2 Tim. 2:11 applies to us instead.

Before they were concluded under sin – the Jews had the “advantage” with God. But now – we are on a level field. Gentiles were already dead in sins and the uncircumcision of their flesh – When Israel murdered their Messiah and continued to reject the offer of the Kingdom, their "advantage" was taken away and they were considered "dead" as well (just like Gentiles.)

"But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe."

It goes without saying that the scriptures concluded Gentiles under sin - but the scriptures also concluded Israel under sin - especially when they refused to believe on Christ.

It was God's will for the entire world to be saved through the nation Israel, (John 4:22) but because they rejected their Messiah – ALL (Both Jew and Gentile) WERE (HATH BEEN) concluded DEAD.

This was what "the scripture hath" CONCLUDED, and is why it was necessary for Christ to come and die for the sins of the world. 

 

GraceRightlyAppliedChangesEverything

 


 

***Additional Resources from Truth Time Radio on this Topic:

Is Everyone Forgiven?     YouTube     Podcast

Is Everyone Forgiven? (Part 2)     YouTube     Podcast

Forgiven By His Cross, Or By Your Belief?     YouTube     Podcast

God Isn't Forgiving Sin     YouTube     Podcast

Forgiven But Didn't Know It (Reconciliation, Part 1)     YouTube     Podcast

Forgiven But Didn't Know It (Reconciliation, Part 2)     YouTube     Podcast

Paid For But Not Forgiven?     Article

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